These excellent questions appear in a post at: MR BAGEL BLOG
Why is there no protest over the historical reduction of Eretz Israel,The British Mandate,The Balfour Declaration or the proposed boundaries at the 1919 Paris peace conference – all were significantly larger than the resultant boundaries of 1948?
Why is it acceptable for the Palestinians to arbitrarily want to return to the borders of 1967?
Why not the borders as first envisioned in 1917, or why not borders based on pre Roman conquest?
Why even cede any territory to the so called ‘Palestinians’?
Why aren’t they absorbed by their ever so caring Arabic neighbours? (Who refuse to pay the Palestinian Authority the pledges they have made.) Let Egypt have that basket case called Gaza, let the ‘west bank’ Palestinians move to Jordan.
Why is it valid to ignore the historical Jewish territorial area but valid to accept ‘historical’ Palestinian claims?
Why is the State of Palestine solely made up of area under Israeli control? (Gaza was formerly under Israel’s control)
Why isn’t Trans Jordan, Egypt, Syria or Lebanon obliged to relinquish territory to this mythical state called Palestine?
Why are there no border disputes between the Palestinians and the other Arab States?
Why not take arbitrary amounts of land from each neighbor including the other Arabic states?
Is it because Palestine is simply a vehicle to deny Jewish ownership? The State of Palestine is a political construct whose major purpose is a Islamic/Arab nationalistic drive to exclude ‘all others’ (re: Jews) from the Middle East. If Israel was one square meter of land in the Middle East, Arabs would still insist on territorial concessions.